Dr Jacobs…great commentary. What do you think is the reasoning behind Marks constant use of the term “immediately”? Is he taking us somewhere with this usage or some other reason?
You're right that Mark uses the word often, as I've noted in my comments. But as we'll see in the calling of Levi (Matthew), he will occasionally omit "immediately." Hence, I think he uses it with great intention, indicating the readiness of the first disciples or the instantaneous and complete nature of the healing. But its absence is equally important. Chrysostom believes Levi is called later because he was not yet ready to follow at the start of Christ's ministry, and this movement toward readiness is the reason of omitting "immediately" in his case.
Dr Jacobs…great commentary. What do you think is the reasoning behind Marks constant use of the term “immediately”? Is he taking us somewhere with this usage or some other reason?
You're right that Mark uses the word often, as I've noted in my comments. But as we'll see in the calling of Levi (Matthew), he will occasionally omit "immediately." Hence, I think he uses it with great intention, indicating the readiness of the first disciples or the instantaneous and complete nature of the healing. But its absence is equally important. Chrysostom believes Levi is called later because he was not yet ready to follow at the start of Christ's ministry, and this movement toward readiness is the reason of omitting "immediately" in his case.